DBMS IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

DATABASE MANAGEMENT SYSTEMS 

Q.1 In the relational modes, cardinality is termed as:

(A) Number of tuples.
(B) Number of attributes.
(C) Number of tables.
(D) Number of constraints.
 Ans: A

Q.2 Relational calculus is a
(A) Procedural language.
(B) Non- Procedural language.
(C) Data definition language.
(D) High level language.
Ans: B

Q.3 The view of total database content is
(A) Conceptual view.
(B) Internal view.
(C) External view.
(D) Physical View.
Ans: A

Q.4 Cartesian product in relational algebra is
(A) a Unary operator.
(B) a Binary operator.
(C) a Ternary operator.
(D) not defined.
Ans: B

Q.5 DML is provided for
(A) Description of logical structure of database.
(B) Addition of new structures in the database system.
(C) Manipulation & processing of database.
(D) Definition of physical structure of database system.
Ans: C
DML is provided for manipulation & processing of database. (Data stored in the database is processed or manipulated using data manipulation language commands as its name)

Q.6 ‘AS’ clause is used in SQL for
(A) Selection operation.
(B) Rename operation.
(C) Join operation.
 (D) Projection operation.
 Ans: B
‘AS’ clause is used in SQL for rename operation. (e.g., SELECT ENO AS EMPLOYEE_NO FROM EMP)

Q.7 ODBC stands for
(A) Object Database Connectivity.
(B) Oral Database Connectivity.
(C) Oracle Database Connectivity.
(D) Open Database Connectivity.
Ans: D

Q.8 Architecture of the database can be viewed as
(A) two levels.
(B) four levels.
(C) three levels.
(D) one level.
Ans: C

Q.9 In a relational model, relations are termed as
(A) Tuples.
(B) Attributes
(C) Tables.
(D) Rows.
 Ans:C 

Q.10 The database schema is written in
(A) HLL
(B) DML
(C) DDL
(D) DCL
Ans: C

Q.11 In the architecture of a database system external level is the
(A) physical level.
(B) logical level.
(C) conceptual level
(D) view level.
Ans: D

Q.12 An entity set that does not have sufficient attributes to form a primary key is a
(A) strong entity set.
(B) weak entity set.
(C) simple entity set.
(D) primary entity set.
Ans: B

Q.13 In a Hierarchical model records are organized as
(A) Graph.
(B) List.
(C) Links.
(D) Tree.
Ans: D

Q.14 In an E-R diagram attributes are represented by
(A) rectangle.
(B) square.
(C) ellipse.
(D ) triangle.
Ans: C

Q.15 In case of entity integrity, the primary key may be
(A) not Null
(B) Null
(C) both Null & not Null.
(D) any value.
Ans: A

Q.17 The language used in application programs to request data from the DBMS is referred to as the (A) DML
(B) DDL
(C) VDL
(D) SDL
Ans: A

Q.18 A logical schema
(A) is the entire database.
(B) is a standard way of organizing information into accessible parts.
(C) describes how data is actually stored on disk.
 (D) both (A) and (C)
Ans: A

Q.19 Related fields in a database are grouped to form a
(A) data file.
(B) data record.
(C) menu.
(D) bank.
Ans: B
Related data fields in a database are grouped to form a data record. (A record is a collection of related fields)

Q.20 The database environment has all of the following components except:
(A) users.
(B) separate files.
(C) database.
(D) database administrator.
Ans: A

COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND ARCHITECTURE IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

COMPUTER ORGANIZATION AND ARCHITECTURE
1. In Reverse Polish notation, expression A*B+C*D is written as
(A) AB*CD*+
(B) A*BCD*+
(C) AB*CD+*
(D) A*B*CD+
Ans: A

2. SIMD represents an organization that ______________.
(A) refers to a computer system capable of processing several programs at the same time.
 (B) represents organization of single computer containing a control unit, processor unit and a memory unit.
(C) includes many processing units under the supervision of a common control unit
(D) none of the above.
 Ans: C

 3. Floating point representation is used to store
 (A) Boolean values
 (B) whole numbers
(C) real integers
(D) integers
Ans: C

 4. Suppose that a bus has 16 data lines and requires 4 cycles of 250 nsecs each to transfer data. The bandwidth of this bus would be 2 Megabytes/sec. If the cycle time of the bus was reduced to 125 nsecs and the number of cycles required for transfer stayed the same what would the bandwidth of the bus?
(A) 1 Megabyte/sec
 (B) 4 Megabytes/sec
(C) 8 Megabytes/sec
 (D) 2 Megabytes/sec
Ans: D

5. Assembly language
 (A) uses alphabetic codes in place of binary numbers used in machine language
 (B) is the easiest language to write programs
 (C) need not be translated into machine language
 (D) None of these
Ans: A

6. In computers, subtraction is generally carried out by
(A) 9’s complement
(B) 10’s complement
(C) 1’s complement
(D) 2’s complement
Ans: D

7. The amount of time required to read a block of data from a disk into memory is composed of seek time, rotational latency, and transfer time. Rotational latency refers to
(A) the time its takes for the platter to make a full rotation
(B) the time it takes for the read-write head to move into position over the appropriate track
(C) the time it takes for the platter to rotate the correct sector under the head
 (D) none of the above
 Ans: A

8. What characteristic of RAM memory makes it not suitable for permanent storage?
 (A) too slow
(B) unreliable
(C) it is volatile
(D) too bulky
Ans: C

 9. Computers use addressing mode techniques for _____________________.
(A) giving programming versatility to the user by providing facilities as pointers to memory counters for loop control
 (B) to reduce no. of bits in the field of instruction
(C) specifying rules for modifying or interpreting address field of the instruction
(D) All the above
Ans: D

10. The circuit used to store one bit of data is known as
(A) Register
 (B) Encoder
(C) Decoder
(D) Flip Flop
 Ans: D

11. (2FAOC) 16 is equivalent to
(A) (195 084) 10
(B) (001011111010 0000 1100) 2
(C) Both (A) and (B)
 (D) None of these
Ans: B

12. The average time required to reach a storage location in memory and obtain its contents is called the
(A) seek time
(B) turnaround time
(C) access time
(D) transfer time
Ans: C

13. Which of the following is not a weighted code?
(A) Decimal Number system
(B) Excess 3-cod
(C) Binary number System
 (D) None of these
Ans: B

14. The idea of cache memory is based
(A) on the property of locality of reference
(B) on the heuristic 90-10 rule
(C) on the fact that references generally tend to cluster
(D) all of the above
Ans: A

15. Which of the following is lowest in memory hierarchy?
(A) Cache memory
(B) Secondary memory
 (C) Registers
(D) RAM
(E) None of these
Ans (B)

16. The addressing mode used in an instruction of the form ADD X Y, is
(A) Absolute
 (B) indirect
 (C) index
 (D) none of these
 Ans: C

17. If memory access takes 20 ns with cache and 110 ns with out it, then the ratio ( cache uses a 10 ns memory) is
 (A) 93%
(B) 90%
 (C) 88%
 (D) 87%
Ans: B

18. In a memory-mapped I/O system, which of the following will not be there?
(A) LDA
 (B) IN
(C) ADD
 (D) OUT
Ans: A

19. In a vectored interrupt.
 (A) the branch address is assigned to a fixed location in memory.
 (B) the interrupting source supplies the branch information to the processor through an interrupt vector.
 (C) the branch address is obtained from a register in the processor
 (D) none of the above
Ans: B

20. Von Neumann architecture is
(A) SISD
 (B) SIMD
(C) MIMD
 (D) MISD
Ans:A

21. The circuit used to store one bit of data is known as
(A) Encoder
(B) OR gate
(C) Flip Flop
(D) Decoder
Ans: C

22. Cache memory acts between
(A) CPU and RAM
(B) RAM and ROM
(C) CPU and Hard Disk
(D) None of these
Ans: A

23. Write Through technique is used in which memory for updating the data
(A) Virtual memory
(B) Main memory
(C) Auxiliary memory
(D) Cache memory
Ans: D

24. Generally Dynamic RAM is used as main memory in a computer system as it
(A) Consumes less power
(B) has higher speed
(C) has lower cell density
(D) needs refreshing circuitary
Ans: B

25. In signed-magnitude binary division, if the dividend is (11100) 2 and divisor is (10011) 2 then the result is
(A) (00100) 2
(B) (10100) 2
(C) (11001) 2
(D) (01100) 2
Ans: B

26. Virtual memory consists of
(A) Static RAM
(B) Dynamic RAM
(C) Magnetic memory
(D) None of these
Ans: A

27. In a program using subroutine call instruction, it is necessary
(A) initialise program counter
(B) Clear the accumulator
(C) Reset the microprocessor
(D) Clear the instruction register
Ans: D

28. A Stack-organised Computer uses instruction of
(A) Indirect addressing
(B) Two-addressing
(C) Zero addressing
(D) Index addressing
Ans: C

29. If the main memory is of 8K bytes and the cache memory is of 2K words. It uses associative mapping. Then each word of cache memory shall be
(A) 11 bits
(B) 21 bits
(C) 16 bits
(D) 20 bits
Ans: C

30 A-Flip Flop can be converted into T-Flip Flop by using additional logic circuit
(A) n TQD =•
(B) T D =
(C) D = T . Q n
(D) n TQD =⊕
Ans: D

Q.31  Logic X-OR operation of (4ACO)_H & (B53F)_H results
_=Base
 (A) AACB  (B) 0000
 (C) FFFF  (D) ABCD
 
 Ans: C

Q.32  When CPU is executing a Program that is part of the Operating System, it is said to be in
 (A) Interrupt mode  (B) System mode
 (C) Half mode       (D) Simplex mode
 
 Ans: B

Q.33  An n-bit microprocessor has
 (A) n-bit program counter  (B) n-bit address register
 (C) n-bit ALU              (D) n-bit instruction register
 
 Ans: D

Q.34  Cache memory works on the principle of
 (A) Locality of data       (B) Locality of memory
 (C) Locality of reference  (D) Locality of reference & memory
 
 Ans: C  

Q.35  The main memory in a Personal Computer (PC) is made of  
  (A)  cache memory.     (B)  static RAM
  (C)  Dynamic Ram       (D)  both (A) and (B).
 
 Ans: D

Q.36  In computers, subtraction is carried out generally by  
 (A) 1's complement method  
 (B) 2's complement method
 (C) signed magnitude method
 (D) BCD subtraction method
 
 Ans: B

Q.37  PSW is saved in stack when there is a
 (A) interrupt recognised  
 (B) execution of RST instruction
 (C) Execution of CALL instruction
 (D) All of these
 
 Ans: A

Q.38  The multiplicand register & multiplier register of a hardware circuit implementing booth's algorithm have (11101) & (1100).  The result shall be
  _=Base
  (A) (812)_10   (B) (-12)_10
  (C) (12)_10    (D) (-812)_10
 
 Ans: A
Q.39  The circuit converting binary data in to decimal is
 (A) Encoder  (B) Multiplexer
 (C) Decoder  (D) Code converter
 
 Ans: D

Q.40  A three input NOR gate gives logic high output only when
 (A) one input is high  (B) one input is low
 (C) two input are low  (D) all input are high
 
 Ans: D

Q.41 n bits in operation code imply that there are ___________ possible distinct operators
   ^=Raised to
   (A) 2n  (B) 2^n
   (C) n/2  (D) n^2
 
   Ans: B

Q.42   _________ register keeps tracks of the instructions stored in program stored in memory.
  (A) AR (Address Register)  (B) XR (Index Register)
  (C) PC (Program Counter)   (D) AC (Accumulator)
 
   Ans: C

Q.43   Memory unit accessed by content is called
   (A) Read only memory  (B) Programmable Memory
   (C) Virtual Memory    (D) Associative Memory

   Ans: D

Q.44   ‘Aging registers’ are
   (A) Counters which indicate how long ago their associated pages have been referenced.
   (B) Registers which keep track of when the program was last accessed.
   (C) Counters to keep track of last accessed instruction.
   (D) Counters to keep track of the latest data structures referred.
   Ans: A

Q.45   The instruction ‘ORG O’ is a  
   (A) Machine Instruction.     (B) Pseudo instruction.
   (C) High level instruction.  (D) Memory instruction.
   Ans: B

OPERATING SYSTEMS IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

OPERATING SYSTEMS

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1  1)      The address of the next instruction to be executed by the current process is provided by the
a) CPU registers
b) program counter
c) process stack
d) pipe
Answer:b

2  2)  A Process Control Block(PCB) does not contain which of the following :
 a) Process State
 b) Stack
 c) Heap
 d) boot strap

Answer: d

3  3)  The number of processes completed per unit time is known as __________.
a) Output
b) Throughput
c) Efficiency
d) Capacity

Answer: b

4   4)  The state of a process is defined by :
a) the final activity of the process
b) the activity just executed by the process
c) the activity to next be executed by the process
d) the current activity of the process

Answer: d

5   5) Which of the following is not the state of a process ?
a) New
b) Old
c) Waiting
d) Running
e) Ready

Answer: b

6   6) The Process Control Block is :
a) Process type variable
b) Data Structure
c) a secondary storage section
d) a Block in memory
Answer: b

7   7) Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes ?
a) Job Queue
b) PCB queue
c) Device Queue
d) Ready Queue
      Answer: b

8  8) When a process terminates : (Choose Two)
a) It is removed from all queues
b) It is removed from all, but the job queue
c) Its process control block is de-allocated
d) Its process control block is never de-allocated

Answer: a and c

9 9)      What is a long-term scheduler ?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of these
Answer: a

1 10)  What is a medium-term scheduler ?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of these
    Answer: c

    11)  In a time-sharing operating system, when the time slot given to a process is completed, the process goes from the running state to the :
a     a) Blocked state
       b)Ready state
       c )Suspended state
       d)Terminated state

       Answer: b

2 12)      What is a short-term scheduler ?
a) It selects which process has to be brought into the ready queue
b) It selects which process has to be executed next and allocates CPU
c) It selects which process to remove from memory by swapping
d) None of these
      Answer: b

1  13)Restricting the child process to a subset of the parent’s resources prevents any process from :
a) overloading the system by using a lot of secondary storage
b) under-loading the system by very less CPU utilization

          c) overloading the system by creating a lot of sub-processes
d) crashing the system by utilizing multiple resources
      Answer: c

2 14)  A parent process calling _____ system call will be suspended until children processes terminate.
a) wait
b) fork
c) exit
d) exec

       Answer: a

315) Cascading termination refers to termination of all child processes before the parent terminates ______.
a) Normally
b) Abnormally
c) Normally or abnormally
d) None of these

        Answer: a

416)  When the process issues an I/O request :
a) It is placed in an I/O queue
b) It is placed in a waiting queue
c) It is placed in the ready queue
d) It is placed in the Job queue
Answer: a

517)      Which of the following do not belong to queues for processes ?
a) Job Queue
b) PCB queue
c) Device Queue
d) Ready Queue
      Answer: b

618)      Message passing system allows processes to :
a) communicate with one another without resorting to shared data.
b) communicate with one another by resorting to shared data.
c) share data
d) name the recipient or sender of the message
Answer: a

7   19)  Inter process communication :
a) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions when using the same address space.
b) allows processes to communicate and synchronize their actions without using the same address space.
c) allows the processes to only synchronize their actions without communication.
d) None of these
      a. Answer: b

8 20)  The link between two processes P and Q to send and receive messages      is called :
    a) communication link
    b) message-passing link
    c) synchronization link
    d) All of these

      Answer: a

9  21) In indirect communication between processes P and Q :
a) there is another process R to handle and pass on the messages between P and Q
b) there is another machine between the two processes to help communication
c) there is a mailbox to help communication between P and Q
d) None of these

          Answer: c

1 22)  In the non blocking send :
a) the sending process keeps sending until the message is received
b) the sending process sends the message and resumes operation
c) the sending process keeps sending until it receives a message
d) None of these
      Answer: b

1 23)  In the Zero capacity queue : (choose two)
          a) the queue has zero capacity
          b) the sender blocks until the receiver receives the message
          c) the sender keeps sending and the messages dont wait in the queue
          d) the queue can store atleast one message
       Answer: a and b

1  24)  The interval from the time of submission of a process to the time of completion is termed as
a) waiting time
b) turnaround time
c) response time
d) throughput
       Answer:b

1   25)  The processes that are residing in main memory and are ready and waiting to execute are kept on a list called
a) job queue
b) ready queue
c) execution queue
d) process queue
       Answer:b

1    26)  Which scheduling algorithm allocates the CPU first to the process that requests the CPU first?
a) first-come, first-served scheduling
b) shortest job scheduling
c) priority scheduling
d) none of the mentioned
     Answer: a

1  27)  In priority scheduling algorithm
a) CPU is allocated to the process with highest priority
b) CPU is allocated to the process with lowest priority
c) equal priority processes can not be scheduled
d) none of the mentioned

     Answer:a

1 28)  Time quantum is defined in
a) shortest job scheduling algorithm
b) round robin scheduling algorithm
c) priority scheduling algorithm
d) multilevel queue scheduling algorithm

    Answer:b

1  29)  In multilevel feedback scheduling algorithm
   a) a process can move to a different classified ready queue
   b) classification of ready queue is permanent
   c) processes are not classified into groups
   d) none of the mentioned
     Answer:a

130)  CPU scheduling is the basis of ____________.
a) multiprocessor systems
b) multiprogramming operating systems
c) larger memory sized systems
d) None of these
     Answer: b

131)  The two steps of a process execution are : (choose two)
a) I/O Burst
b) CPU Burst
c) Memory Burst
d) OS Burst
    Answer: a and b

2 32)  An I/O bound program will typically have :
a) a few very short CPU bursts
b) many very short I/O bursts
c) many very short CPU bursts
d) a few very short I/O bursts

    Answer: c

2 33)  Scheduling is done so as to :
a) increase CPU utilization
b) decrease CPU utilization
c) keep the CPU more idle
d) None of these
    Answer: a
    34) In Unix, Which system call creates the new process?

 a) fork
 b) create
 c) new
 d) none of the mentioned
Answer:a

      35)A process can be terminated due to
      a) normal exit
      b) fatal error
      c) killed by another process
      d) all of the mentioned
      Answer:d

     36)What is interprocess communication?
     a) communication within the process
     b) communication between two process
     c) communication between two threads of same process
     d) none of the mentioned
    Answer:b

      37)    Turnaround time is :

 a) the total waiting time for a process to finish execution

 b) the total time spent in the ready queue

 c) the total time spent in the running queue

 d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process

Answer: d

     38)  Waiting time is :
        a) the total time in the blocked and waiting queues
        b) the total time spent in the ready queue
        c) the total time spent in the running queue
        d) the total time from the completion till the submission of a process

        Answer: b

  39)   Response time is :
      a) the total time taken from the submission time till the completion time
      b) the total time taken from the submission time till the first response is produced
      c) the total time taken from submission time till the response is output
      d) None of these

      Answer: b

440)   Round robin scheduling falls under the category of :
     a) Non preemptive scheduling
     b) Preemptive scheduling
     c) None of these

     Answer: b

441)  Which process can affect of be affected by other processes executing in the system?
a) cooperating process
b) child process
c) parent process
d) init process

     Answer:a

442)  When several processes access the same data concurrently and the outcome of the   execution depends on the particular order in which the access takes place, is called
a) dynamic condition
b) race condition
c) essential condition
d) critical condition

     Answer:b

443)   If a process is executing in its critical section, then no other processes can be executing in their critical section. This condition is called
a) mutual exclusion
b) critical exclusion
c) synchronous exclusion
d) asynchronous exclusion
Answer:a

444)  Which one of the following is a synchronization tool?
a) thread
b) pipe
c) semaphore
d) socket

    Answer:c

445)  Mutual exclusion can be provided by the
a) mutex locks
b) binary semaphores
c) both (a) and (b)
d) none of the mentioned

     Answer:c

4  46) A monitor is characterized by :
a     a) a set of programmer defined operators
b     b) an identifier
c      c) the number of variables in it
d     d) All of these

      Answer: a

4  47) Concurrent access to shared data may result in :
a) data consistency
b) data insecurity
c) data inconsistency
d) None of these

     Answer: c

4  48) A situation where several processes access and manipulate the same data concurrently and the outcome of the execution depends on the particular order in which access takes place is called :
a) data consistency
b) race condition
c) aging
d) starvation

     Answer: b

4  49) In the bakery algorithm to solve the critical section problem :
a) each process is put into a queue and picked up in an ordered manner
b) each process receives a number (may or may not be unique) and the one with the lowest number is served next
c) each process gets a unique number and the one with the highest number is served next
d) each process gets a unique number and the one with the lowest number is served next

     Answer: b

5  50) The TestAndSet instruction is executed :
a) after a particular process
b) periodically
c) atomically
d) None of these

    Answer: c

5

HSST IMPORTANT QUESTIONS

Q.1 Which of the following is not an scripting language ?

(A) HTML (B) XML

(C) Postscript (D) Javascript

Ans: C Postscript

Q.2 Which of the following is a platform free language

(A) Fortran (B) Assembly

(C) C (D) Java

Ans: D Java

Q.3 A digital signature is

(A) scanned signature (B) signature in binary form

(C) encrypting information (D) handwritten signature

Ans: C encrypting information

Q.4 Mechanism to protect private networks from outside attack is

(A) Firewall (B) Antivirus

(C) Digital signature (D) Formatting

Ans: A Firewall

Q.5 A computer system that permits multiple users to run programs at same time

(A) Real time system (B) Multi programming system

(C) Time sharing system (D) Multi tasking system

Ans: D Multi tasking system

Q.6 A computer communication technology that provides a way to interconnect multiple computer across short distance is

(A) LAN (B) MAN

(C) WAN (D) Wireless network

Ans: A LAN

Q.7 Telnet is a service that runs

(A) Television on net (B) Remote program

(C) Cable TV network (D) Telenext

Ans: B Remote program

Q.8. A device that forwards data packet from one network to another is called a

(A) Bridge (B) Switch

(C) Hub (D) Gateway

Ans: B Switch

Q.9 Which of the following is the fastest media of data transfer

(A) Co-axial Cable (B) Untwisted Wire

(C) Telephone Lines (D) Fibre Optic

Ans: D Fiber Optic.

Q.10 Tool that is used to transfer data/files among computers on the Internet

(A) FTP (B) Archie

(C) TCP (D) Gopher

Ans: C TCP

Q.11 HTML is a

(A) Programming Language (B) Scripting Language

(C) Web Browser (D) Network Protocol

Ans: B Scripting Language

Q.12 Secret-key encryption is also known as

(A) Asymmetric encryption (B) Symmetric encryption

(C) Secret-encryption (D) Private encryption

Ans: D Private encryption

Q.13 The concept of electronic cash is to execute payment by

(A) Credit Card (B) ATM Card

(C) Using computers over network (D) Cheque

Ans: C Using computers over network.

Q.14 SMTP is a

(A) Networking Protocol

(B) Protocol used for transferring message between end user & Mail Server

(C) Protocol used for smart card message interchange

(D) Encryption Standard

Ans: B Protocol used for transferring message between end user & Mail Server.

Q.15 Digital Signature is

(A) Scanned Signature on Computer

(B) Code number of the sender.

(C) Public Key Encryption.

(D) Software to recognize signature.

Ans: D Software to recognize signature

Q.16 Telnet is a

(A) Network of Telephones (B) Television Network

(C) Remote Login (D) Remote Login.

Ans: C Remote Login.

Q.17 The internet is

(A) Network of networks (B) Web site.

(C) Host (D) Server

Ans: A Network of networks

Q.18 An e-business that allows consumer to name their own price for products and services is following which e-business model?

(A) B2B (B) B2G

(C) C2C (D) C2B

Ans: D C2B

Q.19 Kerberos is an encryption-based system that uses

(A) Secret key encryption (B) Public key encryption

(C) Private key encryption (D) Data key encryption

Ans: A Secret key encryption.

Q.19 The method(s) of payment for online consumers are

(A) Electronic cash (B) Credit/debit

(C) Electronic checks (D) All of the above

Ans: D All of the Above.

Q.20 DNS is

(A) The distributed hierarchical naming system

(B) The vertical naming system

(C) The horizontal naming system

(D) The client server system

Ans: C The horizontal naming system.

Q.21 A firewall is

(A) An established network performance reference point.

(B) Software or hardware used to isolate a private network from a public network.

(C) A virus that infects macros.

(D) A predefined encryption key used to encrypt and decrypt data transmissions.

Ans: B Software or hardware used to isolate a private network from a public network.

Q.22 A router

(A) Screens incoming information.

(B) Distributes information between networks

(C) Clears all viruses from a computer system

(D) Is a work virus.

Ans: B Distributes information between networks

Q.23 LDAP stands for

(A) Light weight Data Access Protocol.

(B) Light weight Directory Access Protocol.

(C) Large Data Access Protocol.

(D) Large Directory Access Protocol.

Ans: B -> Light weight Directory Access Protocol.

Q.24 E-Commerce is not suitable for

(A) Sale/Purchase of expensive jewellery and antiques.

(B) Sale/Purchase of mobile phones.

(C) Sale/Purchase of branded clothes.

(D) Online job searching.

Ans: D Online job searching

Q.25 Amazon.com comes under the following model

(A) B2B (B) B2C

(C) C2C (D) C2B

Ans: B B2C

Q.26 Hubs are present in the network

(A) to diagnose line failures, measure and manage traffic flow and simplify reconfiguring of LANs.

(B) to interconnect the LAN with WANs.

(C) to interconnect the WANs with WANs.

(D) to interconnect the WANs with LANs.

Ans: B to interconnect the LAN with WANs.

Q.27 Firewalls operate by

(A) The pre-purchase phase.

(B) isolating Intranet from Extranet.

(C) Screening packets to/from the Network and provide controllable filtering of network traffic.

(D) None of the above.

Ans: C Screening packets to/from the Network and provide controllable filtering of network traffic.

Q.28 The mercantile process model consists of the following pahase(s):

(A) The pre-purchase phase.

(B) Purchase consummation phase.

(C) Post-purchase Interaction phase.

(D) All of the above.

Ans: D All of the Above.